Saturday, May 10, 2008
Monday, May 5, 2008
AIEEE 2008 SOLUTION
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AIEEE 2008 EXAMINATION PAPER
Code-A6
Date : 27/04/08
_________________________________________________________________________________________
1. The ionization enthalpy of hydrogen atom is 1.312 × 106 J mol–1. The energy required to excite the
electron in the atom from n = 1 to n = 2 is
(1) 6.56 × 105 J mol–1 (2) 7.56 × 105 J mol–1
(3) 9.84 × 105 J mol–1 (4) 8.51 × 105 J mol–1
Ans. [3]
2. Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?
(1) CN– and CN+ (2) O2
– and CN–
(3) NO+ and CN+ (4) CN– and NO+
Ans. [4]
3. Which one of the following constitutes a group of the isoelectronic species?
(1) NO+, C2
2–, CN–, N2 (2) CN–, N2, O2
2–, C2
2–
(3) N2, O2
–. NO+, CO (4) C2
2–, O2
–, CO, NO
Ans. [1]
4. Four species are listed below:
i. HCO3
– ii. H3O+
iii. HSO4
– iv. HSO3F
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of their acid strength?
(1) ii < iii < i < iv (2) i < iii < ii< iv
(3) iii < i < iv < ii (4) iv < ii < iii < i
Ans. [2]
5. The pKa of a weak acid, HA, is 4.80. The pKb of a weak base, BOH, is 4.78. The pH of an aqueous
solution of the corresponding salt, BA, will be
(1) 4.79 (2) 7.01
(3) 9.22 (4) 9.58
Ans. [2]
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6. The correct decreasing order of priority for the functional groups of organic compounds in the IUPAC
system of nomenclature is
(1) –SO3H, –COOH, –CONH2, –CHO (2) –CHO, –COOH, –SO3H, –CONH2
(3) –CONH2, –CHO, –SO3H, –COOH (4) –COOH, –SO3H, –CONH2, –CHO
Ans. [4]
7. The treatment of CH3MgX with CH3C ≡ C – H produces
(1) CH3C ≡ C – CH3 (2) 3 3 CH C C CH
| |
H H
− = −
(3) CH4 (4) CH3–CH = CH2
Ans. [3]
8. The hydrocarbon which can react with sodium in liquid ammonia is
(1) CH3CH2 C≡ CH (2) CH3CH = CHCH3
(3) CH3CH2C ≡ CCH2CH3 (4) CH3CH2CH2C ≡ CCH2CH2CH3
Ans. [1]
9. The vapour pressure of water at 20º C is 17.5 mm Hg. If 18g of glucose (C6H12O6) is added to 178.2 g of
water at 20° C, the vapour pressure of the resulting solution will be
(1) 15.750 mm Hg (2) 16.500 mm Hg
(3) 17.325 mm Hg (4) 17.675 mm Hg
Ans. [3]
10. Gold numbers of protective colloids A, B, C and D are 0.50, 0.01, 0.10 and 0.005, respectively. The
correct order of their protective powers is
(1) C < B < D < A (2) A < C < B < D
(3) B < D < A < C (4) D < A < C < B
Ans. [2]
11. In a compound, atoms of element Y form ccp lattice and those of element X occupy 2/3rd of tetrahedral
voids. The formula of the compound will be
(1) X2Y3 (2) X2Y
(3) X3Y4 (4) X4Y3
Ans. [4]
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12. In context with the industrial preparation of hydrogen from water gas (CO +H2), which of the following is
the correct statement?
(1) CO is removed by absorption in aqueous Cu2Cl2 Solution
(2) H2 is removed through occlusion with Pd
(3) CO is oxidized to CO2 with steam in the presence of a catalyst followed by absorption of CO2 in alkali
(4) CO and H2 are fractionally separated using differences in their densities
Ans. [3]
13. Among the following substituted silanes the one which will give rise to cross linked silicone polymer on
hydrolysis is
(1) RSiCl3 (2) R2SiCl2
(3) R3SiCl2 (4) R4Si
Ans. [1]
14. Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO4 solution in the
presence of H2SO4. The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried out in the presence of HCl,
because HCl
(1) furnishes H+ ions in addition to those from oxalic acid
(2) reduces permanganate to Mn2+
(3) oxidises oxalic acid to carbon dioxide and water
(4) gets oxidised by oxalic acid to chlorine
Ans. [2]
15. Given 0
Cr / Cr3 E + = – 0.72 V, 0
Fe / Fe2 E + = – 0.42 V.
The potential for the cell Cr |Cr3+ (0.1 M) | |Fe2+ (0.01 M) | Fe is
(1) 0.339 V (2) – 0.339 V
(3) – 0.26 V (4) 0.26 V
Ans. [4]
16. Which one of the following is the correct statement ?
(1) Beryllium exhibits coordination number of six
(2) Chlorides of both beryllium and aluminium have bridged chloride structures in solid phase
(3) B2H6.2NH3 is known as 'inorganic benzene'
(4) Boric acid is a protonic acid
Ans. [2]
17. Identify the wrong statement in the following :
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(1) Greenhouse effect is responsible for global warming
(2) Ozone layer does not permit infrared ratiation from the sun to reach the earth
(3) Acid rain is mostly because of oxides of nitrogen and sulphur
(4) Chlorofluorocarbons are responsible for ozone layer depliction
Ans. [2]
18. The coordination number and the oxidation state of the element 'E' in the complex [E(en)2(C2O4)] NO2
(when (en) is ethylene diamine) are, respectively,
(1) 4 and 2 (2) 4 and 3
(3) 6 and 3 (4) 6 and 2
Ans. [3]
19. In which of the following octahedral complexes of Co (at no. 27), will the magnitude of ∆0 be the highest?
(1) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (2) [Co(H2O)6]3+
(3) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (4) [Co(CN)6]3–
Ans. [4]
20. Larger number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than those by the lanthanoids, the main
reason being
(1) lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d than between 4f and 5d orbitals
(2) more energy difference between 5f and 6d than between 4f and 5d orbitals
(3) more reactive nature of the actinoids than the lanthanoids
(4) 4f orbitals more diffused than the 5f orbitals
Ans. [1]
21. Which of the following factors is of no significance for roasting sulphide ores to the oxides and not
subjecting the sulphide ores to carbon reduction directly ?
(1) CO2 is thermodynamically more stable than CS2
(2) Metal sulphides are less stable than the corresponding oxides
(3) CO2 is more volatile than CS2
(4) Metal sulphides are thermodynamically more stable than CS2
Ans. [3]
22. Oxidising power of chlorine in aqueous solution can be determined by the parameters indicated below :
2
1 Cl2(g) →
Θ ∆ H
2
1
diss Cl(g) →
Θ ∆ H eg Cl–(g) →
Θ ∆ H hyd Cl–(aq)
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The energy involved in the conversion of
2
1 Cl2(g) to Cl–(aq)
(using the data, ∆diss Θ
2 Cl H = 240 kJ mol–1, ∆eg Θ
Cl H = –349 kJ mol–1, ∆hyd
Θ
− Cl H = –381 kJ mol–1) will be
(1) – 610 kJ mol–1 (2) – 850 kJ mol–1
(3) + 120 kJ mol–1 (4) + 152 kJ mol–1
Ans. [1]
23. In the following sequence of reactions, the alkene affords the compound 'B'
CH3CH = CHCH3 → 3 O A
Zn
O H2 → B, The compound B is
(1) CH3COCH3 (2) CH3CH2COCH3
(3) CH3CHO (4) CH3CH2CHO
Ans. [3]
24. Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid and then with concentrated nitric acid, gives
(1) o-nitrophenol (2) p-nitrophenol
(3) nitrobenzene (4) 2,4,6-trinitrobenzene
Ans. [1]
25. Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product is reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid. The product so
obtained is diazotised and then heated with cuprous bromide. The reaction mixture so formed contains
(1) mixture of o– and p-dibromobenzenes (2) mixture of o- and p-bromoanilines
(3) mixture of o- and m-bromotoluenes (4) mixture of o- and p-bromotoluenes
Ans. [4]
26. The organic chloro compound, which shows complete stereochemical inversion during a SN2 reaction , is
(1) (CH3)3CCl (2) (CH3)2CHCl
(3) CH3Cl (4) (C2H5)2CHCl
Ans. [3]
27. The absolute configuration of
HO2C CO2H
HO H H
OH
is
(1) R, R (2) R, S (3) S, R (4) S, S
Ans. [1]
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28. α-D-(+)-glucose and β-D-(+)-glucose are
(1) epimers (2) anomers
(3) enantiomers (4) conformers
Ans. [2]
29. The electrophile, E⊕ attacks the benzene ring to generate the intermediate σ-complex. Of the following,
which σ-complex is of lowest energy ?
(1)
H
E + (2)
+
H
E
NO2
(3)
H
E
NO2
+ (4)
+
H E
NO2
Ans. [1]
30. Standard entropy of X2, Y2 and XY3 are 60, 40 and 50 J K–1 mol–1, respectively. For the reaction,
2
1 X2 +
2
3 Y2 → XY3 ∆H = – 30 kJ, to be at equilibrium, the temperature will be
(1) 500 K (2) 750 K
(3) 1000 K (4) 1250 K
Ans. [2]
31. For the following three reactions a, b and c, equilibrium constants are given:
(1) CO(g) + H2O(g) CO2(g) + H2(g); K1 (2) CH4(g) + H2O(g) CO(g) + 3H2(g); K2
(3) CH4(g) + 2H2O(g) CO2(g) + 4H2(g); K3
Which of the following relations is correct ?
(1) K2 K3 = K1 (2) K3 = K1K2
(3) K3 K2
3 = K1
2 (4) 3 2 1 K K K =
Ans. [2]
32. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting with
(1) CH3CHO (2) CH3COCH3
(3) HCHO (4) (CH2OH)2
Ans. [3]
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33. The equilibrium constants Kp1 and Kp2for the reactions X 2Y and Z P + Q, respectively are
in the ratio of 1 : 9. If the degree of dissociation of X and Z be equal then the ratio of total pressures at
these equilibria is
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 9 (4) 1 : 36
Ans. [4]
34. For a reaction
2
1 A → 2B, rate of disappearance of 'A' related to the rate of appearance of 'B' by the
expression
(1)
dt
] B [ d
4
1
dt
] A [ d = − (2)
dt
] B [ d
dt
] A [ d = −
(3)
dt
] B [ d 4
dt
] A [ d = − (4) dt
] B [ d
2
1
dt
] A [ d = −
Ans. [1]
35. At 80º C , the vapour pressure of pure liquid 'A' is 520 mm Hg and that of pure liquid 'B' is 1000 mm Hg.
If a mixture solution of 'A' and 'B' boils at 80º C and 1 atm pressure, the amount of 'A' in the mixture is (1
atm = 760 mm Hg)
(1) 34 mol percent (2) 48 mol percent
(3) 50 mol percent (4) 52 mol percent
Ans. [3]
36. A body of mass m = 3.513 kg is moving along the x- axis with a speed of 5.00 ms–1. The magnitude of its
momentum is recorded as
(1) 17.565 kg ms–1 (2) 17.56 kg ms–1
(3) 17.57 kg ms–1 (4) 17.6 kg ms–1
Ans. [4]
37. Consider a uniform square plate of side 'a' and mass 'm'. The moment of inertia of this plate about an axis
perpendicular to its plane and passing through one of its corners is
(1)
12
1 ma2 (2)
12
7 ma2
(3)
3
2 ma2 (4)
6
5 ma2
Ans. [3]
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38. The speed of sound in oxygen (O2) at a certain temperature is 460 ms–1. The speed of sound in helium
(He) at the same temperature will be (assume both gases to be ideal)
(1) 500 ms–1 (2) 650 ms–1
(3) 330 ms–1 (4) 460 ms–1
Ans. [BONUS]
39. A thin spherical shell of radius R has charge Q spread uniformly over its surface. Which of the following
graphs most closely represents the electric field E (r) produced by the shell in the range 0 ≤ r < ∞, where r
is the distance from the centre of the shell?
(1)
E(r)
r
R O
(2)
E(r)
r
R O
(3)
E(r)
r
R O
(4)
E(r)
r
R O
Ans. [4]
40. Relative permittivity and permeability of a material are εr and µr, respectively. Which of the following
values of these quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic material?
(1) εr = 1.5 , µr = 0.5 (2) εr = 0.5 , µr = 0.5
(3) εr = 1.5 , µr = 1.5 (4) εr = 0.5 , µr = 1.5
Ans. [1]
41. Suppose an electron is attracted towards the origin by a force
r
k where 'k' is a constant and 'r' is the
distance of the electron from the origin. By applying Bohr model to this system, the radius of the nth
orbital of the electron is found to be 'rn' and the kinetic energy of the electron to be 'Tn'. Then which of the
following is true?
(1) Tn independent of n, rn ∝ n (2) Tn ∝
n
1 , rn ∝ n
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(3) Tn ∝
n
1 , rn ∝ n2 (4) Tn ∝ 2 n
1 , rn ∝ n2
Ans. [1]
42. A block of mass 0.50 kg is moving with a speed of 2.00 ms–1 on a smooth surface. It strikes another mass
of 1.00 kg and then they move together as a single body. The energy loss during the collision is
(1) 1.00 J (2) 0.67 J
(3) 0.34 J (4) 0.16 J
Ans. [2]
43. A wave travelling along the x- axis is described by the equation y(x,t) = 0.005 cos (αx –βt). If the
wavelength and the time period of the wave are 0.08 m and 2.0 s, respectively, then α and β in appropriate
units are
(1) α =
π
08 . 0 , β =
π
0 . 2 (2) α =
π
04 . 0 , β =
π
0 . 1
(3) α = 12.50 π, β =
0 . 2
π
(4) α = 25.00π , β = π
Ans. [4]
44. A working transistor with its three legs marked P, Q and R is tested using a multimeter. No conduction is
found between P and Q. By connecting the common (negative) terminal of the multimeter to R and the
other (positive) terminal to P or Q, some resistance is seen on the multimeter. Which of following is true
for the transistor ?
(1) It is a pnp transistor with R as collector (2) It is a pnp transistor with R as emitter
(3) It is an npn transistor with R as collector (4) It is an npn transistor with R as base
Ans. [4]
45. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2 having densities ρ1 and ρ2, respectively. A solid ball,
made of a material of density ρ3, is dropped in the jar. It comes to equilibrium in the position shown in the
figure.
Liquid 1 ρ1
ρ3
Liquid 2 ρ2
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Which of the following is true for ρ1, ρ2 and ρ3 ?
(1) ρ1 > ρ3 > ρ2 (2) ρ1 < ρ2 < ρ3
(3) ρ1 < ρ3 < ρ2 (4) ρ3 < ρ1 < ρ2
Ans. [3]
46. An athlete in the olympic games covers a distance of 100 m in 10 s. His kinetic energy can be estimated to
be in the range
(1) 2 × 105 J – 3 × 105 J (2) 20,000 J – 50,000 J
(3) 2,000 J – 5,000 J (4) 200 J – 500 J
Ans. [3]
47. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 9 pF. The separation between its
plates is 'd'. The space between the plates is now filled with two dielectrics. One of the dielectrics has
dielectric constant k1 = 3 and thickness
3
d while the other one has dielectric constant k2 = 6 and thickness
3
d 2 . Capacitance of the capacitor is now
(1) 45 pF (2) 40.5 pF
(3) 20.25 pF (4) 1.8 pF
Ans. [2]
48. The dimension of magnetic field in M, L, T and C (Coulomb) is given as
(1) MT2C–2 (2) MT–1C–1
(3) MT–2C–1 (4) MLT–1C–1
Ans. [2]
49. A body is at rest at x = 0. At t = 0, it starts moving in the positive x-direction with a constant acceleration.
At the same instant another body passes through x = 0 moving in the positive x-direction with a constant
speed. The position of the first body is given by x1(t) after time 't' and that of second body by x2(t) after the
same time interval. Which of the following graphs correctly describes (x1 – x2) as a function of time 't' ?
(1)
(x1 – x2)
O
t (2)
(x1 – x2)
O
t
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(3)
(x1 – x2)
O
t
(4)
(x1 – x2)
O
t
Ans. [1]
50. In the circuit below, A and B represent two inputs and C represents the output.
A
B
C
The circuit represents
(1) AND gate (2) NAND gate
(3) OR gate (4) NOR gate
Ans. [3]
51. While measuring the speed of sound by performing a resonance column experiment, a student gets the
first resonance condition at a column length of 18 cm during winter. Repeating the same experiment
during summer, she measures the column length to be x cm for the second resonance. Then
(1) x > 54 (2) 54 > x > 36
(3) 36 > x > 18 (4) 18 > x
Ans. [1]
52. Shown in the figure below is a meter-bridge set up with null deflection in the galvanometer.
55Ω R
G
20 cm
The value of the unknown resistor R is
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(1) 220 Ω (2) 110 Ω
(3) 55 Ω (4) 13.75 Ω
Ans. [1]
53. A spherical solid ball of volume V is made of a material of density ρ1. It is falling through a liquid of
density ρ2 (ρ2 < ρ1). Assume that the liquid applies a viscous force on the ball that is proportional to the
square of its speed υ, i.e., Fviscous = – kυ2 (k > 0). The terminal speed of the ball is
(1)
k
Vg 1 ρ
(2)
k
Vg 1 ρ
(3)
k
) ( Vg 2 1 ρ − ρ
(4)
k
) ( Vg 2 1 ρ − ρ
Ans. [4]
54. A thin rod of length 'L' is lying along the x-axis with its ends at x = 0 and x = L. Its linear density
(mass/length) varies with x as k
n
L
x
, where n can be zero or any positive number. If the position xCM of
the centre of mass of the rod is plotted against 'n', which of the following graphs best approximates the
dependence of xCM on n ?
(1)
xCM
n O
2
L (2)
xCM
n O
2
L
L
(3)
xCM
n O
2
L
L
(4)
xCM
n O
2
L
L
Ans. [4]
55. A planet in a distant solar system is 10 times more massive than the earth and its radius is 10 times
smaller. Given that the escape velocity from the earth is 11 km s–1, the escape velocity from the surface of
the planet would be
(1) 11 km s–1 (2) 110 km s–1
(3) 0.11 km s–1 (4) 1.1 km s–1
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Ans. [2]
56. An insulated container of gas has two chambers separated by an insulating partition. One of the chambers
has volume V1 and contains ideal gas at pressure P1 and temperature T1. The other chamber has volume V2
and contains ideal gas at pressure P2 and temperature T2. If the partition is removed without doing any
work on the gas, the final equilibrium temperature of the gas in the container will be -
(1)
2 2 1 1
2 2 2 1 1 1
V P V P
T V P T V P
+
+
(2)
2 2 1 1
1 2 2 2 1 1
V P V P
T V P T V P
+
+
(3)
2 2 2 1 1 1
2 2 1 1 2 1
T V P T V P
) V P V P ( T T
+
+
(4)
1 2 2 2 1 1
2 2 1 1 2 1
T V P T V P
) V P V P ( T T
+
+
Ans.[4]
57. Two full turns of the circular scale of a screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on its main scale. The total
number of divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that the screw gauge has a zero error of
– 0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the main scale reading of 3 mm
and the number of circular scale divisions in line with the main scale as 35. The diameter of the wire is -
(1) 3.73 mm (2) 3.67 mm
(3) 3.38 mm (4) 3.32 mm
Ans.[3]
58. A horizontal overhead powerline is at a height of 4 m from the ground and carries a current of 100 A from
east to west. The magnetic field directly below it on the ground is (µ0 = 4π × 10–7 T mA–1)
(1) 5 × 10–6 T northward (2) 5 × 10–6 T southward
(3) 2.5 × 10–7 T northward (4) 2.5 × 10–7 T southward
Ans.[2]
59. An experiment is performed to find the refractive index of glass using a travelling microscope. In this
experiment distances are measured by -
(1) a standard laboratory scale (2) a meter scale provided on the microscope
(3) a screw gauge provided on the microscope (4) a vernier scale provided on the microscope
Ans.[4]
60. A 5 V battery with internal resistance 2 Ω and a 2V battery with internal resistance 1Ω are connected to a
10Ω resistor as shown in the figure.
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P2
P1
10Ω 5V
2Ω
2V
1Ω
The current in the 10 Ω resistor is -
(1) 0.03 A P1 to P2 (2) 0.03 A P2 to P1
(3) 0.27 A P1 to P2 (4) 0.27 A P2 to P1
Ans.[2]
61. A capillary tube (A) is dipped in water. Another identical tube (B) is dipped in a soap-water solution.
Which of the following shows the relative nature of the liquid columns in the two tubes ?
(1)
A B
(2)
A B
(3)
A B
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(4)
A B
Ans.[2]
62. Two coaxial solenoids are made by winding thin insulated wire over a pipe of cross-sectional area
A = 10 cm2 and length = 20 cm. If one of the solenoids has 300 turns and the other 400 turns, their mutual
inductance is (µ0 = 4π × 10–7 T m A–1)
(1) 4.8 π × 10–4 H (2) 4.8 π × 10–5 H
(3) 2.4 π × 10–4 H (4) 2.4 π × 10–5 H
Ans.[3]
63. A student measures the focal length of a convex lens by putting an object pin at a distance 'u' from the lens
and measuring the distance 'v' of the image pin. The graph between 'u' and 'v' plotted by the student should
look like -
(1)
O u(cm)
v(cm)
(2)
O u(cm)
v(cm)
(3)
O u(cm)
v(cm)
(4)
O u(cm)
v(cm)
Ans.[2]
64. This question contains Statement-1 and Statement-2. Of the four choices given after the statements,
choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement-1 :
For a mass M kept at the centre of a cube of side 'a', the flux of gravitational field passing through its sides
is 4 πGM.
and
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Statement-2 :
If the direction of a field due to a point source is radial and its dependence on the distance 'r' from the
source is given as 2 r
1 , its flux through a closed surface depends only on the strength of the source
enclosed by the surface and not on the size or shape of the surface.
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is true. Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
Ans.[1]
65. This question contains Statement-1 and Statement-2. Of the four choices given after the statements,
choose the one that best describes the two statements.
Statement-1 :
Energy is released when heavy nuclei undergo fission or light nuclei undergo fusion.
and
Statement-2 :
For heavy nuclei, binding energy per nucleon increases with increasing Z while for light nuclei it
decreases with increasing Z.
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(2) Statment-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
Ans.[3]
Directions : Questions No. 66 and 67 are based on the following paragraph.
Consider a block of conducting material of resistivity 'ρ' shown in the figure. Current 'I' enters at 'A' and
leaves from 'D'. We apply superposition principle to find voltage '∆V' developed between 'B' and 'C'. The
calculation is done in the following steps :
(i) Take current 'I' entering from 'A' and assume it to spread over a hemispherical surface in the block.
(ii) Calculate field E(r) at distance 'r' from A by using Ohm's law E = ρj, where j is the current per unit
area at 'r'.
(iii) From the 'r' dependence of E(r), obtain the potential V(r) at r.
(iv) Repeat (i), (ii) and (iii) for current 'I' leaving 'D' and superpose results for 'A' and 'D'.
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a b a
∆V I I
A B C D
66. For current entering at A, the electric field at a distance 'r' from A is -
(1) 2 r
I ρ
(2) 2 r 2
I
π
ρ
(3) 2 r 4
I
π
ρ
(4) 2 r 8
I
π
ρ
Ans.[2]
67. ∆V measured between B and C is -
(1)
a
I ρ
–
) b a (
I
+
ρ
(2)
a 2
I
π
ρ
–
) b a ( 2
I
+ π
ρ
(3)
) b a ( 2
I
− π
ρ
(4)
a
I
π
ρ
–
) b a (
I
+ π
ρ
Ans.[2]
Directions : Questions No.68, 69 and 70 are based on the following paragraph.
Wave property of electrons implies that they will show diffraction effects. Davisson and Germer
demonstrated this by diffracting electrons from crystals. The law governing the diffraction from a crystal
is obtained by requiring that electron waves reflected from the planes of atoms in a crystal interfere
constructively (see figure),
d
i
• • • • • • • •
• • • • • • • •
• • • • • • • •
Incoming
Electrons
Outgoing
Electrons
Crystal plane
68. If a strong diffraction peak is observed when electrons are incident at an angle 'i' from the normal to the
crystal planes with distance 'd' between them (see figure) de Broglie wavelength λdB of electrons can be
calculated by the relationship (n is an integer).
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(1) 2d cos i = n λdB (2) 2d sin i = n λdB
(3) d cos i = n λdB (4) d sin i = n λdB
Ans. [1]
69. Electrons accelerated by potential V are diffracted from a crystal. If d = 1Å and i = 30°, V should be about
(h = 6.6 × 10–34Js, me = 9.1 × 10–31 kg., e = 1.6 × 10–19 C)
(1) 50 V (2) 500 V
(3) 1000 V (4) 2000V
Ans. [1]
70. In an experiment, electrons are made to pass through a narrow slit of width 'd' comparable to their
de Broglie wavelength. They are detected on a screen at a distance 'D' from the slit (see figure).
d
D
y = 0
Which of the following graphs can be expected to represent the number of electrons 'N' detected as a
function of the detector position 'y' (y = 0 corresponds to the middle of the slit)?
(1) N
y
d (2) N
y
d
(3) N
y
d (4) N
y
d
Ans. [3]
71. Let f : N → Y be a function defined as f(x) = 4x + 3 where
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Y = |y ∈ N : y = 4x + 3 for some x ∈ N|. Show that f is invertible and its inverse is
(1) g(y) = 4 +
4
3 y +
(2) g(y) =
4
3 y +
(3) g(y) =
4
3 y −
(4) g(y) = 3
4 y 3 +
Ans.[3]
72. Let R be the real line. Consider the following subsets of the plane R × R :
S = {(x, y): y = x + 1 and 0 < x < 2}
T = {(x, y) : x – y is an integer}.
Which one of the following is true ?
(1) Both S and T are equivalence relations on R
(2) S is an equivalence relation on R but T is not
(3) T is an equivalence relation on R but S is not
(4) Neither S nor T is an equivalence relation on R
Ans. [3]
73. The conjugate of a complex number is
1 i
1
−
. Then that complex number is
(1)
1 i
1
+
(2)
1 i
1
+
−
(3)
1 i
1
−
(4)
1 i
1
−
−
Ans. [2]
74. The quadratic equations
x2 – 6x + a = 0
and x2
– cx + 6 = 0
have one root in common. The other roots of the first and second equations are integers in the ratio 4 : 3.
Then the common root is
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1
Ans. [3]
75. Let A be a square matrix all of whose entries are integers. Then which one of the following is true ?
(1) If det A ≠ ± 1 , then A–1 exists and all its entries are non-integers
(2) If det A = ± 1, then A–1 exists and all its entries are integers
(3) If det A = ± 1, then A–1 need not exist
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(4) If det A = ± 1, then A–1 exists but all its entries are not necessarily integers
Ans. [2]
76. Let a, b, c be any real numbers. Suppose that there are real numbers x, y, z not all zero such that
x = cy + bz, y = az + cx, and z = bx + ay. Then a2 + b2 + c2 + 2abc is equal to
(1) –1 (2) 0
(3) 1 (4) 2
Ans. [3]
77. How many different words can be formed by jumbling the letters in the word MISSISSIPPI in which not
two S are adjacent ?
(1) 6. 7. 8C4 (2) 6. 8. 7C4
(3) 7. 6C4 . 8C4 (4) 8. 6C4 . 7C4
Ans. [3]
78. The first two terms of a geometric progression add up to 12. The sum of the third and the fourth terms is
48. If the terms of the geometric progression are alternately positive and negative, then the first term is
(1) – 12 (2) 12
(3) 4 (4) – 4
Ans. [1]
79. Let f(x) =
=
≠
−
−
1 x if 0
1 x if
1 x
1 sin ) 1 x (
Then which one of the following is true ?
(1) f is differentiable at x = 0 and at x = 1 (2) f is differentiable at x = 0 but not at x = 1
(3) f is differentiable at x = 1 but not at x = 0 (4) f is neither differentiable at x = 0 nor at x = 1
Ans. [2]
80. How many real solution does the equation x7 + 14x5 + 16x3 + 30x – 560 = 0 have ?
(1) 1 (2) 3
(3) 5 (4) 7
Ans. [1]
81. Suppose the cubic x3 – px + q has three distinct real roots where p > 0 and q > 0. Then which one of the
following holds ?
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(1) The cubic has minima at –
3
p and maxima at
3
p
(2) The cubic has manima at both
3
p and –
3
p
(3) The cubic has maxima at both
3
p and –
3
p
(4) The cubic has minima at
3
p and maxima at –
3
p
Ans. [4]
82. The value of 2 ∫
π
−
4
x sin
dx x sin is -
(1) x – log | sin (x –
4
π
) | + c (2) x + log | sin (x –
4
π
) | + c
(3) x – log | cos (x –
4
π
) | + c (4) x + log | cos (x –
4
π
) | + c
Ans.[2]
83. The area of the plane region bounded by the curves x + 2y2 = 0 and x + 3y2 = 1 is equal to -
(1)
3
1 (2) 3
2
(3)
3
4 (4) 3
5
Ans.[3]
84. Let I = ∫
1
0 x
x sin dx and J = ∫
1
0 x
x cos dx. Then which one of the following is true ?
(1) I <
3
2 and J < 2 (2) I <
3
2 and J > 2
(3) I >
3
2 and J < 2 (4) I >
3
2 and J > 2
Ans.[1]
85. The differential equation of the family of circles with fixed radius 5 units and centre on the line y = 2 is -
(1) (y – 2) y′2 = 25 – (y – 2)2 (2) (y – 2)2 y′2 = 25 – (y – 2)2
(3) (x – 2)2 y′2 = 25 – (y – 2)2 (4) (x – 2) y′2 = 25 – (y – 2)2
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Ans.[3]
86. The solution of the differential equation
dx
dy =
x
y x +
satisfying the condition y (1) = 1 is -
(1) y = x ln x + x2 (2) y = xe(x–1)
(3) y = x ln x + x (4) y = ln x + x
Ans.[3]
87. The perpendicular bisector of the line segment joining P(1, 4) and Q(k, 3) has y-intercept -4. Then a
possible value of k is -
(1) 2 (2) –2
(3) –4 (4) 1
Ans.[3]
88. The point diametrically opposite to the point P(1, 0) on the circle x2 + y2 + 2x + 4y –3 = 0 is -
(1) (–3, 4) (2) (–3, –4)
(3) (3, 4) (4) (3, – 4)
Ans.[2]
89. A parabola has the origin as its focus and the line x =2 as the directrix. Then the vertex of the parabola is
at -
(1) (1, 0) (1) (0, 1)
(3) (2, 0) (4) (0, 2)
Ans.[1]
90 A focus of an ellipse is at the origin. The directrix is the line x = 4 and the eccentricity is
2
1 . Then the
length of the semi-major axis is -
(1)
3
2 (2) 3
4
(3)
3
5 (4) 3
8
Ans.[4]
91. If the straight lines
k
1 x −
=
2
2 y −
=
3
3 z −
and
3
2 x −
=
k
3 y −
=
2
1 z −
intersect at a point, then the integer k is equal to
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(1) 5 (2) 2
(3) –2 (4) –5
Ans. [4]
92. The line passing through the points (5, 1, a) and (3, b, 1) crosses the yz-plane at the point
−
2
13 ,
2
17 , 0 .
Then
(1) a = 4, b = 6 (2) a = 6, b = 4
(3) a = 8, b = 2 (4) a = 2, b = 8
Ans. [2]
93. The non-zero vectors →a , →b and →c are related by →a = 8 →b and →c = –7 →b . Then the angle between →a
and →c is
(1)
4
π (2)
2
π
(3) π (4) 0
Ans. [3]
94. The vector →a = α iˆ + 2 j ˆ + β kˆ lies in the plane of the vectors →b = iˆ + jˆ and →c = jˆ + kˆ and bisects the
angle between →b and →c . Then which one of the following gives possible values of α and β ?
(1) α = 1, β = 2 (2) α = 2, β = 1
(3) α = 1, β = 1 (4) α = 2, β = 2
Ans. [3]
95. The mean of the numbers a, b, 8, 5, 10 is 6 and the variance is 6.80. Then which one of the following
gives possible values of a and b ?
(1) a = 5, b = 2 (2) a = 1, b = 6
(3) a = 3, b = 4 (4) a = 0, b = 7
Ans. [3]
96. A die is thrown. Let A be the event that the number obtained is greater than 3. Let B be the event that the
number obtained is less than 5. Then P(A ∪ B) is
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3)
5
2 (4)
5
3
Ans. [2]
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97. It is given that the events A and B are such that P(A) =
4
1 , P(A|B) =
2
1 and P(B|A) =
3
2 . Then P(B) is
(1)
3
1 (2)
3
2
(3)
2
1 (4)
6
1
Ans. [1]
98. AB is a vertical pole with B at the ground level and A at the top. A man finds that the angle of elevation of
the point A from a certain point C on the ground is 60º. He moves away from the pole along the line BC
to a point D such that CD = 7 m. From D the angle of elevation of the points A is 45º. Then the height of
the pole is
(1) m ) 1 3 (
2
3 7 + (2) m ) 1 3 (
2
3 7 −
(3) m
1 3
1
2
3 7
+
(4) m
1 3
1
2
3 7
−
Ans. [1]
99. The value of cot
+ −
3
2 tan
3
5 cosec 1 1 – is
(1)
17
3 (2)
17
4
(3)
17
5 (4)
17
6
Ans. [4]
100. The statement p → (q → p) is equivalent to
(1) p → (p ∨ q) (2) p → (p ∧ q)
(3) p → (p ↔ q) (4) p → (p → q)
Ans. [1]
Directions : Question number 101 to 105 are Assertion-Reason type questions. Each of these questions
contains two statements: Statement-1 (Assertion) and Statement-2 (reason). Each of these questions also
has four alternative choices, only one of which is the correct answer. You have to select the correct choice.
101. Let A be a 2 × 2 matrix with real entries. Let I be the 2 × 2 identity matrix. Denote by tr (A), the sum of
diagonal entries of A, Assume that A2 = I.
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Statement- 1:
If A ≠ I and A ≠ –I, then det A = –1
Statement -2 :
If A ≠ I and A ≠ –I, then tr (A) ≠ 0
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement -2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement -2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement -2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
Ans. [4]
102. Statement-1:
For every natural number n ≥ 2.
1
1 +
2
1 + ........ +
n
1 > n
Statement -2:
For every natural number n ≥ 2.
) 1 n ( n + < n + 1
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement -2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement -2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement -2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
Ans. [2]
103. Statement- 1:
∑=
+
n
0 r
) 1 r ( nCr = (n +2) 2n–1
Statement -2:
∑=
+
n
0 r
) 1 r ( nCr xr = (1 + x)n + nx (1 + x)n–1
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement -2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement -2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement -2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
Ans. [1]
104. In a shop there are five types of ice-creams available . A child buys six ice-creams.
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Statement-1:
The number of different ways the child can buy the six ice-creams is 10C5
Statement -2:
The number of different ways the child can buy the six ice-creams is equal to the number of different ways
of arranging 6 A's and 4 B's in a row.
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement -2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement -2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement -2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
Ans. [4]
105. Let p be the statement 'x is an irrational number", q be the statement 'y is a transcendental number", and r
be the statement "x is a rational number iff y is a transcendental number.".
Statement-1 :
r is equivalent to either q or p.
Statement -2 :
r is equivalent ot ~ (p ↔ ~q)
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement -2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement -2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct explanation for Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement -2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
Ans. [4]
Friday, February 8, 2008
MANIPAL UNIVERSITY UGET 2008 - Undergraduate Entrance Test
MANIPAL UNIVERSITY Undergraduate ADMISSIONS 2008
to Undergraduate Courses in MBBS BDS Engineering BPharma Nursing Biotechnology B.Sc. MIT BPT BOT Medicine
The Manipal University, Karnataka invites applications for admissions to the various Medical and Engineering Courses in 2008. The admission to the different courses will be based on the rank in an All India Manipal University Online Under Graduate Entrance Test 2008 (UGET 08) which will be held between 3.4.2008 (Thursday) and 20.5.2008 (Tuesday) at a time slot to be selected by the candidate at the test centre selected by the candidate.
Manipaql UGAT 2008 Important Dates :
Last Date for Application
MBBS, BDS, BE (ENgineering) , BPharm 01.03.08
BSc Nursing, BSc Biotechnology, BPT, BOT, BSc MIT, BSc NMT, BSc MLT, BSc RT, BSc OPT, BASLP, BSc AEC 01.03.08
BHM, BAJC, BA GIR, BBM e-Banking , BBA JDM, BSc HIA 15.03.08
BArch 30.04.08
Lateral BE/BPharm 15.04.08
BSc Applied Sciences, BSc Animation, PC BSc Nursing 30.06.08
Admission open for Manipal University Undergraduate Courses in :
Bachelor of Medicine and Bachelor of Surgery (MBBS)
Bachelor of Dental Surgery (BDS)
Bachelor of Pharmacy (B.Pharm)
B.Sc Nursing
B.Sc Biotechnology
Bachelor of Physical Therapy (BPT)
Bachelor of Occupational Therapy (BOT)
B.Sc Medical Imaging Technology (B.Sc MIT)
B.Sc Nuclear Medicine Technology (Integrated B.Sc NMT)
B.Sc Medical Laboratory Technology( BSc MLT)
B.Sc Respiratory Therapy (BSc RT)
B.Sc Optometry (B.Sc OPT)
Bachelor of Audiology & Speech Language Pathology (BASLP)
BSc Accident & Emergency Care (B Sc AEC)
Bachelor of Engineering (BE)
Manipal UGET 2008 Eligibility
Eligibility: Applicants should be Indian Nationals. Only those applicants whose date of birth falls on or before 31.12.1991 are eligible to apply. Applicants should have passed 10 + 2, A level, IB, American 12th Grade or equivalent with the following additional stipulations on subjects, for the various courses.
MBBS/BDS: Physics, Chemistry, Biology and English with minimum of 55 % marks in Physics, Chemistry and Biology. In addition, candidates will have to score a minimum of 50% marks in the UGET 08 for admission to MBBS/BDS Courses.
B.Pharm: Physics, Chemistry and English with one of Mathematics, Bio Technology, Computer science or Biology as optional with a minimum of 50% marks in Physics, Chemistry and any one of the optional subjects.
B.Sc Nursing: Physics, Chemistry, Biology and English with minimum of 50 % marks in Physics, Chemistry, Biology and English.
B.Sc Biotechnology: Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics and English with one of Bio Technology or Biology as optional with a minimum of 60% marks in Physics, Chemistry and any one of the optional subjects.
BPT/BOT/B.Sc, MIT/BSc, NMT/B.Sc, MLT/B.Sc & RT: Physics, Chemistry, Biology and English with minimum of 45 % marks in Physics, Chemistry and Biology.
B.Sc OPT/BASLP/B.Sc AEC: Physics, Chemistry and English with Biology or Mathematics as optional with a minimum of 45 % marks in Physics, Chemistry and any one of the optional.
BE: Physics, Mathematics and English with one of Chemistry, Biotechnology, Biology, Computer science or Engineering Drawing as optional with a minimum of 50% marks in Physics, Mathematics and any one of the optional subjects.
MANIPAL UGET 2008 Application Procedure:
The application material can be purchased from Manipal University Admissions office by writing to the Director, Admissions, Manipal University, Manipal - 576104 by enclosing a request along with a Demand Draft for Rs.500 drawn in the name of 'Manipal University' and payable at Manipal, Udupi or Bangalore.
The application material is available from select branches of State Bank of India, MeritTrac Offices and Candidates can also apply online.
UGET 2008 test centres: Ahmedabad, Bangalore, Bhopal, Bhubaneswar, Chandigarh, Chennai, Coimbatore, Delhi, Ernakulam, Gangtok, Guwahati, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Kolkata, Lucknow, Manipal, Mangalore, Mumbai and Pune.
The UGET 2008 Result (merit list of candidates) who have appeared for the UGET will be published on 25.5.2008(Sunday) on www.manipal.edu
For details visit
Icfai Institute of Science and Technology (IcfaiTech)
For admission to first year B.Tech. Courses The B.Tech. Program is a four-year, eight-semester, full-time campus program. The Program provides cutting edge education to equip students with a comprehensive and critical understanding in various branches of engineering. The following branches of engineering are offered: Biotechnology Civil Engineering Computer Science & Engineering Electronics & Communications Engineering Electrical & Electronics Engineering Mechanical Engineering Students who pass with 60% and above aggregate in 10+2 or its equivalent with pass in each of Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry, and final year students awaiting examinations and results are eligible to apply for the Program. Admission Process Admission to the B.Tech. Program is through the Admission Test for IcfaiTech (ATIT) 2008. Students may also be admitted to the program based on their rank in AIEEE 2008 (All India Engineering Entrance Examination) which is being conducted by CBSE on 27th April 2008. Admission Procedure for candidates appearing ATIT 2008 Admission to the B.Tech. Program is through ATIT 2008 conducted by IcfaiTech. ATIT 2008 is scheduled on May 4, 2008 (Sunday) from 10.00 AM to 1.00 PM. Applicants are required to report at 9.00 AM at the test center on the day of ATIT 2008. ATIT constitutes objective type questions in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry in multiple choice format. The answers have to be marked in the specially designed OMR answer sheet, which will be provided at the time of the admission test. There will be 60 questions in each of the three subjects, as per the syllabus. All applicants are advised to adhere to the last dates prescribed for the submission of the OMR Application Form so that necessary arrangements can be made in advance for conducting ATIT 2008. Results for ATIT 2008 Results will be announced on the website www.icfaitech.org/atit at 8 PM (IST) on May 17, 2008. Successful applicants will also be intimated individually through mail/post. Admission Procedure for candidates applying based on AIEEE 2008 Students may also be admitted to the program based on their all India Rank in AIEEE 2008 (All India Engineering Entrance Examination 2008) which is being conducted by the CBSE on 27 April, 2008. Candidates applying for admission on the basis of AIEEE 2008 are not required to write ATIT 2008.They are offered admission into all branches at IcfaiTech, Dehradun. However, they may also seek admission into IcfaiTech Campuses other than IcfaiTech, Dehradun. Candidates may also appear both ATIT 2008 and AIEEE 2008, inorder to enhance the chance of getting preferred IcfaiTech Campus and Branch. All candidates seeking admission based on AIEEE scores should indicate their AIEEE application number in the OMR Application Form. They also have to submit the attested photocopy of the scorecard on or before June 7, 2008. Please note that the selection of the candidates will be withheld incase of non-receipt of the AIEEE score card before the due date. . Submission of OMR Application Form Applicants are required to complete the OMR Application Form and send it to the Admissions Officer, through speed post or courier, at the following address: The Admissions Officer (ATIT 2008) The last date for receiving the completed OMR application forms at the above address is April 21, 2008. The OMR Application Forms received after April 21, 2008 may not be considered.
Eligibility
Campus Programs Admissions Department® (CPAD®)
# 45 Nagarjuna Hills, Punjagutta, Hyderabad - 500082
Tel: 040-2343 5328/ 29/ 30/ 45
Fax: 040-23435347/48.
Email: atit@icfaitech.org
ATMA - Syllabus
AIMS TEST FOR MANAGEMENT ADMISSIONS - 2008 syllabus
The Questions on Analytical Skills examine the logical thinking abilities of a candidate. Do remember that a particular Question is less important than the reasoning task you are asked to perform. No specialized knowledge of any particular field is required for answering the questions, and no knowledge of the terminology and conventions of formal logic is presumed.
In the Questions on Analytical Skills you need to analyse the situations on which each Questions is based and then select the answer choice that is most appropriate response to the question.
Each set of Question or group of Questions is based on a passage or set of conditions. In answering some of the Questions, it may be useful to draw a rough diagram: For each Question, select the best answer from the choices given, Darken the corresponding oval in the answer sheet.
Number: All numbers are real numbers
Figures: Position of points, angles, regions, etc., can be assumed to positive.
Lines drawn as straight can be assumed to be straight.
Figures that accompany questions are intended to provide information useful in answering the questions. However, unless it is stated a specific figure is not drawn to scale; the diagrams and figures are drawn as accurately as possible, you should solve these problems NOT by estimating sizes by sight or by measurement, but using your knowledge of mathematics.
ATMA 2008 - AIMS Test for Management Admissions
is the national network with over 400 management schools. It represents Indian Management Schools in various national and international fora connected with Management Education. AIMS organises " AIMS Test for Management Admissions (ATMA)" a standard test for admission to postgraduate management programme ATMA approved by AICTE, is focused on the student. It is designed to assess the aptitude for management education including verbal skills, quantitative skills and analytical reasoning of students.
ATMA has been approved by the Ministry of Human Resource Development of the Government of India for admission on All India Basis to the MBA / PGDM and other Postgraduate Programmes like MCA.
Eligibility: Bachelor's degree in any discipline. Students appearing for their final year examination in 2008 are also eligible to apply.
How to apply ?
Candidates desirous of taking ATMA should first collect application kits, which will be available from November 15, 2007 from ATMA Office, at Hyderabad, different IMS Learning Resources Centres and AIMS member institutes listed in the advertisement by paying Rs.750/- (Rupees seven hundred and fifty only) in cash or by sending a demand draft for Rs.800 (Rupees Eight hundred only) (includes postal charges) favouring "Association of Indian Management Schools " payable at Hyderabad from Office of ATMA, Association of Indian Management Schools House No. 8-3-677/57 A, Plot No. 57, Sri Krishnadevarayanagar, Street No.6, Yellareddiguda, Hyderabad 500 073.
Tel: 040-23750247/8. Email: atma_aims@vsnl.net
The application kit will also be available from the following centres:
1. Bhubaneswar: Regional College of Management, Bhubaneswar – 751023. Tel: 0674-2301595.
2. Bangalore: Welingkar Institute Of Management, Development and Research, #11
Emen Arcade, KrishnaNagar Industrial Layout, Next to Forum Mall / Christ College, Hosur Main Road, Bangalore - 29, Tel: 080 - 41303781/82.
3. GUWAHATI: Assam Institute of Management, 7th Floor, East Point Tower Bamunimaidam, Guwahati - 781 021. Tel No: 0361- 2654 815.
4. GHAZIABAD: Shiva Institute of Management Studies, 364-365, Pandav Nagar, Industrial Area, Bulandshahr Road, NH-24, Ghaziabad - 201 005. Tel: 0120 – 2702412.
5. Gwalior: Prestige Institute of Management, Airport Road, Near Deendayal Nagar, Gwalior-474020. Tel: 0751-4044495.
6. KOLHAPUR: CHH Shahu Institute of Business Education & Research University Road, Kolhapur - 416004 Tel: 0231-253506, Fax 0231-664505.
7. KOLKATA: Eastern Institute for Integrated Learning in Management, 6, Waterloo Street Kolkata – 700069. Tel: 033-22100911/12/13.
8. KOLKATA: Institute of management study, 93 Mukundapur main road Eastern metropolitant bypass, Kolkata – 700099. Phone : 033- 24264168 mobile 9830030791 / 9831637683.
9. INDORE: Prestige Institute of Management & Research 2, Education and Health Sector Scheme 54, Indore - 452 010. M.P. Tel No:0731-2557 510, 2557 114
10. Mumbai: Prin.L.N. Welingkar Institute of Management Development & Research Lakhamsi Napoo Road, Next to R.A Podar College, Near Matunga Central Railway Station, Matunga,
Mumbai – 400 019. Tel: 022 – 24178300 ext: 740 / 741 / 739.
11. PUNE: Indian Institute of Cost & Management Studies and Research (IndSearch)85/1, Law College Road, Pune 411 004. Tel: 020-25431972, 25441524.
IMS Learning Centres
Ahmedabad: 66303151.
Bengaluru: 41307256, 41137660, 25582200
Bhilal: 4010716
Bhopal: 6543001
Bhubaneswar: 2564156, 2536053
Chandigarh: 0172-2621914
Chennai: 42116836, 28193075
Cochin: 2354016
Coimbatore: 2215284
Cuttack: 2335085
Ghaziabad: 4106008.
Gurgaon: 98116-34449
Hydrabad: 6666 9333
Indore: 4206129
Jaipur: 2740579.
Kanpur: 2535794
Kolkata: 24659001, 22891234, 23210303
Lucknow: 2285768
Madurai: 4383183
Mumbai: 26733964, 28332074, 25717181, 24020224
Nagpur: 2557084
New Delhi: 23359967, 27429665, 41731456
Noida:2534463
Patna: 3206794.
Pune: 26059741, 65008726, 24223925
Trichy: 2742002
Visakhapatnam: 6631488
ICFAI IMCAT 2008
MCA Entrance Exam 2008
ICFAI Institute of Information Technology MCA Admission Test 2008
The Icfai School of Information Technology offers academic support and placement assistance to candidates interested in pursuing the MCA program of the ICFAI University, Dehradun, ISIT has been achieving 100% placements every year for the students with blue-chip companies, software development and consulting organizations.
ICFAI IMCAT 2008 MCA Admission Test - Important Dates
| Last date for receipt of Application Form at CPAD®, Hyderabad | : | April 21, 2008 |
| Online Admit Cards | : | April 14, 2008 onwards |
| IMCAT 2008 Test Date | : | May 4, 2008 (Sunday) 10.00 AM to 1.00 PM |
| IMCAT 2008 Test Centers | : | 48 Test Centers all over India |
| IMCAT 2008 Results | : | May 17, 2008 (8 PM IST) (Saturday) |
| Dispatch of Selection Letters | : | May 19, 2008 onwards (Monday) |
| Payment of Admission Fee on or before | : | June 9, 2008 (Monday) |
| Commencement of Classes | : | July 7, 2008 (Monday) |
Opportunity to get additional certifications form Oracle, Microsoft, IBM, SAP and PMI enhancing career opportunities.
ELIGIBILITY: Graduation (any discipline-English Medium) with 50% and above aggregate marks. Final year degree students awaiting examinations and results.
SELECTION: Through IMCAT 2008 (ISIT MCA Test) on May 04, 2008 at 48 test centers all over India.
Classes from July, 07, 2008.
For Details & Prospectus contact the following centers:
Coimbatore: "Whites Building", 2nd Floor, 550/8, Opp. Tanishq, D.B. Road, RS Puram (Ph: 2541190, 4366447
Salem: 1st Floor, A/3, Bharathi Street, (Beside Hotel Salem Castle). (Ph: 2332122/2442122)
Erode: No. 225/301, 1st Floor, Mettur Road, Opp, Jainsons, (Ph:2266012/13)
Refer Website for other center information.
ISIT
The Icfai School of Information Technology
Campus Programms Admissions Department (CPAD) HQ, 45, Nagarjuna Hills, Punjagutta, Hyderabad-500082.
Ph: 040-23435328/29/30/45.
Fax: 040-23435347/48
Email: cpadhq@isitindia.org
www.isitindia.org
MCA ANNA UNIVERSITY
MCA
(6 Semesters)
EMPHASIZING
- Call Centre Management
- E – Learning
- Health Care
- Trading and Equity Management
- Banking Technology
ELIGIBILITY
Any degree* - The Candidate should have studied Core Mathematics either at +2level or Mathematics / Statistics / Computer Oriented subject as one of the subjects at
the degree level and a pass in the entrance test conducted by Anna University Chennai
All degree must have been obtained After "Plus Two" or Equivalent
M.Sc.
(4 Semesters)
BRANCHES
- Computer Science
- Computer Technology
- Information Technology
- Software Engineering
ELIGIBILITY
B.Sc.* Mathematics / Computer Science /
Information Technology / Software
Engineering / Electronics
(or) B.Sc.* (Physics / Statistics / Chemistry) /
B.E.S.* with Mathematics or Computer
Science as allied subject
(or) B.Sc.* Applied Sciences
(Computer Technology /
Information Technology / Computer
Systems Maintenance and Networking)
(or) B.C.A.*
(or) B.E.*/ B.Tech.* (any branch)
and a pass in the entrance test conducted
by Anna University Chennai
All degrees must have been obtained
after "Plus Two" or Equivalent
IMPORTANT DATES
Commencement of Issue of application Form: 23.01.2008
Last date of Issue and Receipt of Filled Applications: 07.02.2008
Date of Online Entrance Tests:
Chennai: 17.02.2008
Chennai & Bangalore: 24.02.2008
Chennai& Salem: 02.03.2008
Chennai, Bangalore & Salem: 09.03.2008
SEPARATE APPLICATION FORMS HAVE TO BE FILLED FOR ONLINE TEST
- In Person
- By Downloading
Rs. 650/- for Application including Online Entrance Test Fees
HOW TO APPLY?
- IN PERSON : Application forms can be obtained in person at the centre for Distance Education, Anna University Chennai, Chennai-600025 on payment of Rs. 650/- in the form of Demand Draft drawn in favour of "The Director, Centre for Distance Education, Anna University Chennai" payable at Chennai and be obtained from any Nationalized Bank on or after 19.01.2008. Please write your Demand Draft.
The details of additional amount to be paid along with the filled Application Form are as follows:
- No DD to be enclosed if applying for any one programme of MBA/MCA/MSC.
- DD amount: Rs 600/- if applying for any two programmes of MBA/ MCA/MSc
- DD amount: Rs 1200/- if applying for all the three programmes of MBA/MCA/ MSc.
- BY DOWNLOADING: Blank application form cab be downloaded from the web-sit www.annauniv.edu/cde and the same may be filled. The filled in application form along with the demand draft for appropriate value and self addressed post card be sent to "The Director, Centre for Distance Education, Ann University Chennai" payable at Chennai and be obtained from any nationalized Bank on or after 19.01.2008. Please write your Name. Communication Address. Application Number and Mobile Number behind the Demand Draft.
The details of DD amount to be enclosed along with the Downloaded filled Application Form are as Follows:
DD amount:
Rs. 650/- if applying for any one programme of MBA/MCA/MSc.
RS. 1250/- if applying for any two programmes of MBA/MCA/MSc
RS. 1850/- if applying for all the three programmes of MBA. MCA & MSc.
DEMAND DRAFTS
All Demand Drafts should be drawn in favour of "The Director, Centre for Distance Education, Anna University Chennai" payable at Chennai and be obtained from any Nationalized Bank on or after 19.01.2008.
NOTE:
- Study Centres will operate in selected cities where there are sufficient numbers of candidates. The present list of study centres are available at our website.
- Candidates should send only one application irrespective of the number of programmes for which he/she would like to take up Entrance Tests.
- Applications are invited from candidates from all over India.
- Candidates will be required to produce copy of the relevant provisional / degree certificate at the time of admission by February 2008.
- Candidates are required to bring Original Certificates along with one set of Xerox Copies (SSLC, HSC and Degree Certificate or equivalent) when they come for Online Entrance Test for scrutiny at the time of provisional admission.
For further details
The Director, Centre for Distance Education, Anna University Chennai, Chennai 25, Ph: 044-64502506, 044-64502507, 044-64502508, 044-22203112
STUDY CENTRES AVAILABLE AT:
BANGALORE, CHENNAI, COIMBATORE, DELHI, DHANBAD, ERODE, HYDERABAD, KOLLAM, LOVILPATTI, MADURAI, MUMBAI, NAGERCOIL (THUCKALAY), POLLACHI, PONDICHERRY, SALEM, TRICHY & VELLORE
Anna University, Chennai - Distance Education MBA, MCA, M.Sc 2008 Admission Notice
Anna University, Chennai - Distance Education MBA, MCA, M.Sc 2008
Admission Notice
Applications are invited from eligible candidates for admission to MBA, MCA, M.Sc. degree programmes of the Calendar Year 2008 offered through distance mode
Online Entrance Tests at Chennai, Salem & Bangalore
Immediate Provisional Admission
MBA
(4 Semester)
SPECIALIZATION
- General Management
- Technology Management
- Financial Services Management
- Retail Management
- Health Services Management
- Human Resources Management
Registration for MCA-CET 2008:
The candidate is required to read the information brochure carefully.
* Aspiring candidates are required to register their name online on the website www.dte.org.in/mca for "MAH-MCA-CET 2008" for which the Application ID and password supplied in the Kit shall be required.
* The instructions to the candidates are provided in the Kit.
* The candidate is required to submit online application through Internet at home, cybercafé or at the designated facilitation center.
* Candidates are required to pay Rs.50/- in cash separately as facilitation charges at the ARC- cum-facilitation center.
* Candidate is required to fill up the personal details, qualification details and option for CET Center.
* The candidate is required to paste the recent Photo and put signature on the space provided on the sheet. This sheet is provided in the kit. The sheet is to be scanned and the image is to be uploaded on the website as per given guidelines.
* The candidate has to verify the correctness of the information filled. In case of any correction, the candidate can do it online before confirmation.
* The candidate is required confirm the Registration as per guidelines given in Kit.
* Candidate will not be able to change the information after the confirmation of registration.
* The Online system shall generate the Hall Ticket for CET bearing Name of candidate, the Photo and Signature of the Candidate, CET Center &Venue and such other details.
* OMS candidates who wish to apply for admission through CAP only on the basis of score of AIMCET 2008 against OMS seats will have to compulsorily register for CET. However the Hall Ticket for CET shall not be issued to such candidates. Such candidates can take a printout of the submitted application form for future reference.
* The candidates, who have already procured Information brochure along with MAH-MCACET 2008 Kit and failed to register– such candidates can confirm online application form by paying additional late fees of Rs. 1000/- in cash at SIMSREE, Churchgate, Mumbai.
* The candidates, who have not so far procured Information brochure and MAH-MCA-CET 2008 Kit– such candidates need to procure Information Brochure (Rs. 1150/Rs.950) and pay additional late fees of Rs. 1000/- in cash at SIMSREE, Churchgate, Mumbai on the dates declared in the Notification.
* Such Candidates will be allotted a CET center situated only in Mumbai.
Sale of MCA CET 2008 Information Brochure:
Information Brochure along with "MAH-MCA-CET 2008 Kit" for the aspiring candidates will be available at the identified post offices in selected cities in India as mentioned in the Notification and website, against the payment of the application processing fees.
* It is mandatory for the candidates to procure the information brochure along with "MAHMCA-CET 2008 Kit" from the identified post offices.
* The application form processing fees is Rs. 750/- for Maharashtra State (General Category) candidates, OMS and J&K Migrant candidates whereas Rs. 550/- for reserved category candidates belonging to Maharashtra State (i.e. Candidates having relevant backward class Caste Certificate and other applicable certificates issued by Maharashtra State authorities). This fee is to be paid in cash at the identified post offices during the contact hours of the respective post offices. This fee is non refundable and non transferable under any circumstances.
* J & K Migrant candidate aspiring to apply for OMS seats also is required to pay Rs. 1500/- as total fees and procure two Kits from the post office. Such candidates are required to submit only one application form as J&K Migrant Candidate and will be required to select the choice as interested to apply for OMS seat.
* Candidates will receive Receipt of Payment of fees from Post Office titled as "candidate's copy". Candidates are required to produce the receipt of the payment of fees at the time of confirmation of submission of CAP application form for admission (during stage-V) at the ARC and therefore the candidates are instructed to carefully preserve the receipts of the payment for further use.
* All the information printed in the brochure will also be available on the website for browsing, downloading and printing.
* MAH-MCA-CET 2008 Kit contains the Application ID, Password, important instructions for the submission of online application form. Candidates are advised to read the instructions carefully before submitting the application form.
Eligibility for MAH MCA-CAT 2008
Eligibility:
Basic Qualification: In order to secure admission to first year of three-year full time MCA course, the candidate should fulfill the following eligibility criteria;
Passed with minimum of 45% marks in aggregate* ( 40% in case of candidates of backward class categories belonging to Maharashtra State only) in any Bachelor's degree of minimum three years duration in any discipline recognised by the Association of Indian Universities and having studied Mathematics or Statistics as one of the subjects at 10+2 level or higher level examination.
OR
Appeared** for the final year examination of any Bachelor's degree of minimum three years duration in any discipline recognised by the Association of Indian Universities. Such candidates can be considered for provisional admission subject to passing the Degree exam with minimum of 45% marks in aggregate (40% in case of candidates of backward class categories belonging to Maharashtra State only) and having studied Mathematics or Statistics as one of the subjects at 10+2 level or higher level examination.
OR
Passed with any Bachelor's degree of minimum three years duration in any discipline AND passed in any Post Graduate degree course of minimum two years duration recognized by the Association of Indian Universities in any discipline with minimum 45% marks in aggregate* (40% in case of candidates of backward class categories belonging to Maharashtra State only) and having studied Mathematics or Statistics as one of the subjects at 10+2 level or higher level examination.
OR
Passed with any Bachelor's degree of minimum three years duration in any discipline AND Appeared** for the final year examination of any Post Graduate degree of minimum two years duration in any discipline recognised by the Association of Indian Universities. Such candidates can be considered for provisional admission subject to passing the Post Graduate Degree exam with minimum of 45% marks in aggregate (40% in case of candidates of backward class categories belonging to Maharashtra State only) and having studied Mathematics or Statistics as one of the subjects at 10+2 level or higher level examination.
Maharashtra MAH-MCA-CET 2008 Important Dates
Sale of Information Brochure at select post offices:
starts on : 06-02-2008
Last Date: 16-02-2008
Online submission of the "MAH MCA CET Application Form" through computer connected to Internet on the website www.dte.org.in/mca for Maharashtra State / OMS/ J&K candidates and receipt of the Hall Ticket for the MAH-MCA-CET 2008.
Start Date: 06-02-2008
Last Date: 16-02-2008
KIITEE 2008 - KIIT University Entrance Examination. Kalinga Institute Of Industrial Technology - Dates Notification
KALINGA INSTITUTE OF INDUSTRIAL TECHNOLOGY
KIIT UNIVERSITY
BHUBANESWAR, ORISSA, INDIA.
Applications are invited to the following courses
B.Tech. (4 years)
Civil Engineering
Mechanical Engineering
Electrical Engineering
Electronics & Tele-Communication Engineering
Computer Science & Engineering
Information Technology
Electronics & Electrical Engineering
B.Tech.-Lateral Entry (3years)
Civil Engineering
Mechanical Engineering
Electrical Engineering
Electronics & Tele-Communication Engineering
Computer Science & Engineering
Information Technology
Electronics & Electrical Engineering
M.C.A. (3 years)
B.C.A. (3 years)
M.Tech. (2 years)
Computer Science & Engineering
Electronics & Tele-Communication Engineering
Electrical-Power Electronics & Drives
Mechanical-Manufacturing Process & System
Civil-Construction Engineering & Management
M.Sc. Biotechnology (2 years)
M.Sc. Microbiology (2 years)
Integrated M.Sc. Biotech. (5 years)
B.B.A. (3 years)
Integrated Law Programme
BA LLB (5 years)
BBA LLB (5 years)
B.Sc. LLB (5 years)
IMPORTANT DATES
Issue of Application Form and Prospectus: 07-01-2008 to 28-02-2008
Last date for receiving filled in Application Form 28-02-2008
KIITEE-2008
To be held on 3rd & 4th May, 2008 in 68 Centres all over the country.
FROM SELLING COUNTERS
Forms are available in the designated branches of Allahabad Bank, selected Post Offices and University Counters.
ONLINE APPLICATION:
Candidates can also apply online through KIIT website. Online Application will be accepted after receipt of
(1) DD of Rs.700/- in favour of KIIT. (Write the Application number and Candidate's Name on the backside of the DD)
(2) Printout of Registration Form signed by Father/Mother/Guardian and the Candidate
(3) Two Passport size photographs.
Candidates appearing for the Qualifying Examination in 2008 are also eligible to apply.
Contact Details:
ADMISSION CELL, KOEL CAMPUS,
KIIT UNIVERSITY
BHUBANESWAR – 751024.
Ph: 0674-2742103, 2741389, 2741998. Fax: 0674-2741465
Email: admission@kiit.ac.in
JNU MCA Entrance Exam 2008
Jawaharlal Nehru University Admission to M.C.A. Course 2008 The School of Computer & Systems Sciences was established way back in 1975. It is one of the foremost institutions to start teaching and research programmes in the broad areas of computer science. The School has established itself as one of the most prestigious institutions in the area of computer education in the country. The School offers programmes of instruction and research leading to degree of MCA, M.Tech.(M.Phil.) and Ph.D. It attracts best of the students from all over the country. Every year around ten thousand students including applicants from the neighbouring SAARC countries, appear for the MCA and M.Tech. entrance examination. The popularity of the courses offered can be judged from the excellent (100%) placement of successful students in the best of the companies in the field of Computer Science and Information Technology. The graduates from the School have been placed in companies such as IBM, CSC, Flextronics, Siemens, HP, Parot Systems, CSG, Accenture, Cadence, GE Caps, etc. The School has trained students from foreign universities in the field of Computer Science. MCA (Master of Computer Applications) This three-year programme is designed to provide necessary theoretical background and practical experience in Computer Science and Applications to meet the growing manpower requirements in automatic computing. SCHOLARSHIPS: Scholarships of the value of Rs.600/- per month will be awarded during the fifth and sixth semesters to those students of MCA programme who have met the prescribed grades/courses requirements. ELIGIBILITY FOR ADMISSION M.C.A.: Bachelor's degree in any discipline with adequate competence in Mathematics under 10+2+3 pattern of education with at least 55% marks. JNU MCA Entrance Exam - Master of Computer Applications(MCA), SC & SS 16th May, 2008 (9.00 A.M. to 12 Noon) Syllabus : Master of Computer Applications (MCA) Entrance Exam The questions in the entrance examination for admission to the MCA programme may cover the following areas of study as well as their applications: a) Trigonometry g) Statistics & Probability b) Modern Algebra and Matrix Theory h) Elementary Numerical Analysis c) Theory of Equation i) Logical Ability d) Calculus and Analytical Geometry j) Fundamentals of Computer e) Real Analysis k) Elements of Data Structures f) Differential Equations l) Computer Organisation m) C Language MCA Entrance Exam Important Dates: 1. Last date for issue of Application Form By Cash 17th March, 2008 By Post 7th March, 2008 2. Last date for receipt of completed application forms 17th March, 2008 3. Date of Entrance Examination (Time-Table given at the end) 16th May 2008 4. Expected date for despatch of communication for viva-voce examination Latest by 3rd July, 2008 5. Viva-Voce of candidates selected on by 21st of July, 2008 on the basis of written test (Tentative) 6. Publication of merit list for admission to various programmes of study i) where viva voce is not prescribed Latest by 14th July, 2008 ii) where viva voce is prescribed Latest by28th July, 2008 The candidates who are due to appear in their respective qualifying examination prescribed as eligibility for admission to a particular programme before 14th August, 2007 may appear in the entrance examination at their own risk and on the clear stipulation that in the event of their selection they will be entitled to admission only if they have secured the minimum prescribed percentage of marks in their qualifying examination and they submit all documents including final marks-sheets of qualifying examination before the deadline fixed for registration. Admit Card will be issued by the University only to those candidates who have submitted the Application form complete in all respects on or before the last date for submission of Application Form i. e. 16th March, 2008. The University will not be responsible for any Postal delay in receipt of Application Form or non receipt of Application Forms due to any reason. The University will not be responsible for any postal dalay resulting in non- receipt of Admit Card. The candidates may download their Admit Card from the University's website: www.jnu.ac.in after 10th May, 2007 and take that Admit Card to the Examination Centre with a copy of latest passport size Photograph. Permission to appear in the entrance examination is subject to the candidate's fulfilling minimum eligibility requirements prescribed for admission to the concerned programme of study and as notified in the Prospectus. The candidate may therefore appear in the entrance examination only if he/she fulfils the eligibility requirements for the programme for which the admission is sought. Despite this caution, in case any candidate who does not meet the minimum eligibility criteria prescribed for the concerned programme and appears in the entrance examination shall do so at his/her own risk and cost, and if at any stage, it is found that the candidate does not fulfil the minimum eligibility requirements, the admission, if granted, shall be cancelled ipso facto. The University representative(s) shall be available at the Examination Centre before the commencement of the examination and a candidate facing problem due to non-receipt of Admit Card or on some other account is advised to get in touch with the University Representative or the Presiding Officer of the Centre in order to avoid any last minute inconvenience. Only those candidates will be allowed to appear for Entrance examination whose names appear in the Roll List available with the JNU Representative(s). University assumes no responsibility whatsoever in the event of failure to report at the due date and time by the candidate for appearing in the Entrance Examination.Jawahar lal Nehru University MCA Admissions 2008
School of Computer & Systems Sciences
ADMIT CARD FOR ENTRANCE EXAMINATION